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PD2


Juuu
Go to solution Solved by MauriceLePoisson,

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Coucou choupette !!🐠 (je suis bcp trop fan de ta photo de profil trop kiki)

En gros ta pD2 elle correspond grosso modo à ta pCE50 pour un antagoniste neutre

Du coup à partir de là tu peux déduire à partir de ta pD2 de 8 que IC50 c'est 10^-8 donc 10 nM 

A partir de là tu appliques la formule du Ki = IC50/1+(L*/Kd) = 10^-8/2 = 10 nM/2 et tu tombes bien sur 5 nM 

Bueno ? 😇

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